Computer Science Past Papers AJK PSC – Assistant Professor Held November 2025 100 min Score: 0 Attempted: 0/100 Subscribe 1. Circular Queue is also known as (A) Curve Buffer (B) Square Buffer (C) Ring Buffer (D) Rectangular Buffer 2. Which one of the following is NOT a type of queue? (A) Ordinary queue (B) Priority queue (C) Circular queue (D) Single ended queue 3. The data structure used to check if an expression contains balanced parentheses is (A) Queue (B) Stack (C) Array (D) Tree 4. The data structure required for Breadth First Traversal (BFS) is (A) Queue (B) List (C) Tree (D) Array 5. ______ data structure is used for implementing recursion. (A) Queue (B) Stack (C) List (D) Array 6. ______ tree data structure is NOT a strictly balanced binary tree. (A) Splay tree (B) AVL tree (C) Red-black tree (D) B-tree 7. Algorithm used in the top-tree data structure is (A) Divide and conquer (B) Branch (C) Backtracking (D) Greedy 8. In ______ data structure, elements can be inserted or deleted from both ends but not in the middle. (A) Deque (B) Priority queue (C) Circular queue (D) Queue 9. Assuming βintβ is 4 bytes, the size of βint arr[10]β will be** (A) 04 (B) 08 (C) 01 (D) 40 10. A Process Control Block (PCB) does NOT contain (A) Code (B) Stack (C) Heap (D) Bootstrap program 11. Which one of the below is NOT a CPU Scheduling algorithm? (A) FCFS (B) FFO (C) Round Robin (D) SJF 12. A process is selected from the ______ queue by the ______ scheduler, to be executed. (A) Ready, short-term (B) Ready, long-term (C) Wait, long-term (D) Ready, medium-term 13. Concurrent access to shared data may result in (A) Concurrency (B) Data insecurity (C) Data security (D) Data inconsistency 14. In paging, program divides memory into fixed-size blocks called (A) Pages (B) Page numbers (C) Clips (D) Frames 15. After completion of I/O operation, the state of process changes from βBlockedβ to (A) End (B) New (C) Ready (D) Running 16. ______ affects other executing processes in the system. (A) Starvation (B) Scheduling policies (C) Deadlock (D) Ignorance 17. Bankerβs algorithm is used for deadlock (A) Detection (B) Avoidance (C) Recovery (D) Ignorance 18. The number of processes the operating system creates during program execution (A) Increases (B) Decreases (C) Stabilises (D) Changes 19. Mathematical simulations are which type of process? (A) Scheduler dependent (B) IO-Bound Processes (C) Both CPU-Bound Processes and IO-Bound Processes (D) CPU-Bound Processes 20. ______ system call creates a new process in Unix/Linux OS. (A) create (B) new (C) fork (D) init 21. The physical layer of the OSI model is responsible for (A) Modulation (B) Line coding (C) Channel coding (D) All of the above 22. ______ is NOT the function of network layer. (A) Congestion control (B) Inter-networking (C) Routing (D) Error control 23. Data link layer takes packets from the ______ layer and encapsulates them into frames for transmission. (A) Transport (B) Network (C) Application (D) Physical 24. ______ network extends a private network across public networks. (A) Local area (B) Virtual private (C) Storage area (D) Enterprise private 25. ______ layer is responsible for process-to-process delivery in general network model. (A) Transport (B) Data link (C) Session (D) Network 26. ______ is the network layer protocol for the internet. (A) File transfer protocol (B) Ethernet (C) Internet protocol (D) Hypertext transfer protocol 27. Name the network topology that requires a central controller or hub. (A) Ring (B) Bus (C) Star (D) Mesh 28. ______ allows connecting and logging in to a remote computer. (A) SMTP (B) HTTP (C) FTP (D) Telnet 29. Standard TCP port ______ is used for SSH servers. (A) 21 (B) 23 (C) 22 (D) 24 30. The network layer is concerned with ______ of data. (A) Bits (B) Frames (C) Bytes (D) Packets 31. The registers, ALU and the interconnection between them are collectively called as (A) Address bus (B) Data path (C) Control path (D) Information path 32. The addressing mode where we directly specify the operand value is (A) Immediate (B) Relative (C) Direct (D) Definite 33. To reduce the memory access time we generally make use of (A) SDRAMs (B) Higher capacity RAMs (C) Heaps (D) Cache 34. The VLIW architecture follows ______ approach to achieve parallelism. (A) SISD (B) MISD (C) MIMD (D) SIMD 35. The flash memory modules designed to replace hard disk functions are (A) RIMM (B) FIMM (C) DIMM (D) Flash drives 36. During write-operation, if the required block is not in cache, a ______ occurs. (A) Write delay (B) Write latency (C) Write hit (D) Write miss 37. For zero-address instructions, operands are taken from (A) Stack (B) Accumulator (C) Registers (D) Cache 38. ______ memory is used to increase the speed of main memory. (A) Secondary memory (B) Flash drive (C) Hard disk (D) Virtual memory 39. In bus organization, all registers are called as (A) Set registers (B) Map registers (C) Register block (D) Register file 40. In a system with 32 registers, register ID field is (A) 6-bits (B) 8-bits (C) 5-bits (D) 10-bits 41. Each attribute of a relation has a set of permitted values called the ______ of that attribute. (A) Relation (B) Tuple (C) Domain (D) Schema 42. The term ______ is used to refer to a row. (A) Instance (B) Term (C) Field (D) Attribute 43. Records of a relation are also called as (A) Keys (B) Records (C) Tables (D) Files 44. Which of the following is an example of DBMS? (A) MySQL (B) All of the above (C) IBM DB2 (D) Microsoft Access 45. Information about data is called (A) DB data (B) User data (C) Meta data (D) Google data 46. The ability to query, insert, delete and alter tuples is offered by (A) DDL (B) DML (C) Pure (D) None 47. ______ is a set of attributes taken collectively to uniquely identify a record. (A) Primary key (B) Foreign key (C) Super key (D) Candidate key 48. ______ command is used to remove a relation from SQL. (A) delete (B) drop table (C) purge (D) remove 49. Which of the following is NOT a DBMS utility? (A) Backup (B) Data loading (C) File organization (D) Process organization 50. Which normal form is adequate for a normal RDBMS design? (A) 2NF (B) 5NF (C) 4NF (D) 3NF 51. ______ model is not suitable for accommodating any change. (A) Build & fix (B) RAD (C) Prototyping (D) Waterfall 52. Which of the following is NOT a software process quality? (A) Productivity (B) Timeliness (C) Portability (D) Visibility 53. AGT Model is a set of (A) Programs (B) Software tools (C) CASE tools (D) None of the above 54. Quality Management is also known as (A) SQA (B) SOW (C) SQM (D) SQA and SQM 55. Which document contains user system-requirements? (A) SRD (B) BDD (C) SDD (D) SRS 56. ______ specification is also known as SRS document. (A) White-box (B) Black-box (C) Grey-box (D) None 57. There are ______ scenarios in elicitation activities. (A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 4 58. Which one of the following is NOT an agile method? (A) AGT (B) XP (C) AUP (D) All of the above 59. Efficiency in a software product does NOT include (A) Responsiveness (B) Processing time (C) Memory utilization (D) Licensing 60. Constraints in UML can be represented by ______. (A) [text] (B) {text} (C) constraint (D) None of the above 61. The value of an automatic variable in C/C++ that is declared but not initialized is (A) Unpredictable (B) 1 (C) 0 (D) None of the above 62. ______ is NOT a type of loop statement. (A) for (B) while (C) goto (D) do-while 63. What does debugging in programming refer to? (A) Writing code (B) Testing code (C) Fixing errors in code (D) Documenting code 64. A conditional statement in programming (A) Always executes (B) Performs calculation (C) Conditionally executes (D) Repeatedly executes 65. ______ loop guarantees at least one execution even if condition is false. (A) do-while (B) while (C) for (D) All of the above 66. ______ is used as address-of operator in C/C++. (A) & (B) * (C) @ (D) % 67. A programming language that can generate new data types is called (A) Extensible (B) Overloaded (C) Derived (D) Reprehensible 68. ______ statement is used to come out of any loop in C/C++. (A) Continue (B) Leave (C) Break (D) Quit 69. What is the index number of the last element of an array with 9 elements? (A) 0 (B) Programmer-defined (C) 9 (D) 8 70. What type of pointer is used to pass void pointer to void? (A) 64-bit (B) float (C) void (D) double 71. If a class serves as base class, then the members of base class are ______. (A) Derived (B) Polymorphic (C) Inherited (D) None 72. How many objects can be created from an abstract class? (A) As many as needed (B) One (C) Two (D) Zero 73. Which feature of OOP indicates code reusability? (A) Polymorphism (B) Inheritance (C) Encapsulation (D) Abstraction 74. Adding new concept or class is known as (A) Platform support (B) Message passing (C) Platform independence (D) Data binding 75. Identify the feature achieved using encapsulation. (A) Nested (B) Abstract (C) Anonymous (D) Protected 76. The object cannot be ______. (A) Passed by reference (B) Passed as function (C) Passed by value (D) All of the above 77. How many classes can be inherited by a single class in Java? (A) 1024 (B) 2 (C) More than 2 (D) 1 78. In multilevel inheritance one class inherits ______ class. (A) All of the above (B) More than one (C) More than two (D) Only one 79. Which among the following can restrict class members to get inherited? (A) Private (B) Protected (C) Public (D) A & B 80. There are ______ tuples in a finite state machine. (A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) Unlimited 81. Language of finite automata is (A) Type-3 (B) Type-1 (C) Type-2 (D) Type-0 82. In Moore machine, output is produced on change of (A) Transitions (B) None of the above (C) All of the above (D) Transition states 83. Mealy and Moore machines can be categorized as (A) Inducers (B) Linearly bounded automata (C) Transducers (D) Turing machines 84. Regular Expression R and the language it describes can be represented as ______. (A) R, R(L) (B) L(R), R(L) (C) All of the above (D) R, L(R) 85. Which of the following is a type of cybersecurity? (A) One (B) Two (C) Four (D) Three 86. Cloud Security, Network Security, and Application Security are collectively known as: (A) All of the above (B) Network Security (C) Cloud Security (D) Application Security 87. An attempt to harm, damage, or cause threat to a system or network is called: (A) Cyber Attack (B) Threats (C) System Hijacking (D) Digital Crime 88. Existence of weakness in a system or network is known as: (A) Attack (B) Exploit (C) Vulnerability (D) Threat 89. The term used for both white-hat and black-hat hackers is: (A) Yellow Hat (B) Grey Hat (C) Red Hat (D) Blue Hat 90. ______ can diminish the chance of data leakage. (A) Chorography (B) Steganography (C) Cryptography (D) Authentication 91. Which programming language is commonly used for server-side scripting in web development? (A) HTML (B) CSS (C) PHP (D) JavaScript 92. Which HTML tag is used to create an ordered list on a webpage? (A) <b> (B) <ul> (C) <ol> (D) <lo> 93. Which HTML tag is used to create a hyperlink? (A) <a> (B) <href> (C) <link> (D) <hyperlink> 94. Which CSS property controls the positioning of an element? (A) set (B) static (C) place (D) position 95. React.js is written in which of the following languages? (A) C++ (B) JavaScript (C) Java (D) C 96. Which of the following is a branch of Artificial Intelligence? (A) Machine Learning (B) Cyber Forensics (C) Full-Stack Development (D) Network Design 97. Which of the following is a component of Artificial Intelligence? (A) Learning (B) Feeding (C) Designing (D) Puzzling 98. Which of the following is not an application of Artificial Intelligence? (A) DBMS (B) Chatbots (C) LIDAR (D) Face recognition system 99. How many informed search methods are there in Artificial Intelligence? (A) 1 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 4 100. What is the total number of quantifications available in Artificial Intelligence? (A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) 4