1. Circular Queue is also known as
(A) Curve Buffer
(B) Square Buffer
(C) Ring Buffer
(D) Rectangular Buffer
2. Which one of the following is NOT a type of queue?
(A) Ordinary queue
(B) Priority queue
(C) Circular queue
(D) Single ended queue
3. The data structure used to check if an expression contains balanced parentheses is
(A) Queue
(B) Stack
(C) Array
(D) Tree
4. The data structure required for Breadth First Traversal (BFS) is
(A) Queue
(B) List
(C) Tree
(D) Array
5. ______ data structure is used for implementing recursion.
(A) Queue
(B) Stack
(C) List
(D) Array
6. ______ tree data structure is NOT a strictly balanced binary tree.
(A) Splay tree
(B) AVL tree
(C) Red-black tree
(D) B-tree
7. Algorithm used in the top-tree data structure is
(A) Divide and conquer
(B) Branch
(C) Backtracking
(D) Greedy
8. In ______ data structure, elements can be inserted or deleted from both ends but not in the middle.
(A) Deque
(B) Priority queue
(C) Circular queue
(D) Queue
9. Assuming “int” is 4 bytes, the size of “int arr[10]” will be**
(A) 04
(B) 08
(C) 01
(D) 40
10. A Process Control Block (PCB) does NOT contain
(A) Code
(B) Stack
(C) Heap
(D) Bootstrap program
11. Which one of the below is NOT a CPU Scheduling algorithm?
(A) FCFS
(B) FFO
(C) Round Robin
(D) SJF
12. A process is selected from the ______ queue by the ______ scheduler, to be executed.
(A) Ready, short-term
(B) Ready, long-term
(C) Wait, long-term
(D) Ready, medium-term
13. Concurrent access to shared data may result in
(A) Concurrency
(B) Data insecurity
(C) Data security
(D) Data inconsistency
14. In paging, program divides memory into fixed-size blocks called
(A) Pages
(B) Page numbers
(C) Clips
(D) Frames
15. After completion of I/O operation, the state of process changes from “Blocked” to
(A) End
(B) New
(C) Ready
(D) Running
16. ______ affects other executing processes in the system.
(A) Starvation
(B) Scheduling policies
(C) Deadlock
(D) Ignorance
17. Banker’s algorithm is used for deadlock
(A) Detection
(B) Avoidance
(C) Recovery
(D) Ignorance
18. The number of processes the operating system creates during program execution
(A) Increases
(B) Decreases
(C) Stabilises
(D) Changes
19. Mathematical simulations are which type of process?
(A) Scheduler dependent
(B) IO-Bound Processes
(C) Both CPU-Bound Processes and IO-Bound Processes
(D) CPU-Bound Processes
20. ______ system call creates a new process in Unix/Linux OS.
(A) create
(B) new
(C) fork
(D) init
21. The physical layer of the OSI model is responsible for
(A) Modulation
(B) Line coding
(C) Channel coding
(D) All of the above
22. ______ is NOT the function of network layer.
(A) Congestion control
(B) Inter-networking
(C) Routing
(D) Error control
23. Data link layer takes packets from the ______ layer and encapsulates them into frames for transmission.
(A) Transport
(B) Network
(C) Application
(D) Physical
24. ______ network extends a private network across public networks.
(A) Local area
(B) Virtual private
(C) Storage area
(D) Enterprise private
25. ______ layer is responsible for process-to-process delivery in general network model.
(A) Transport
(B) Data link
(C) Session
(D) Network
26. ______ is the network layer protocol for the internet.
(A) File transfer protocol
(B) Ethernet
(C) Internet protocol
(D) Hypertext transfer protocol
27. Name the network topology that requires a central controller or hub.
(A) Ring
(B) Bus
(C) Star
(D) Mesh
28. ______ allows connecting and logging in to a remote computer.
(A) SMTP
(B) HTTP
(C) FTP
(D) Telnet
29. Standard TCP port ______ is used for SSH servers.
(A) 21
(B) 23
(C) 22
(D) 24
30. The network layer is concerned with ______ of data.
(A) Bits
(B) Frames
(C) Bytes
(D) Packets
31. The registers, ALU and the interconnection between them are collectively called as
(A) Address bus
(B) Data path
(C) Control path
(D) Information path
32. The addressing mode where we directly specify the operand value is
(A) Immediate
(B) Relative
(C) Direct
(D) Definite
33. To reduce the memory access time we generally make use of
(A) SDRAMs
(B) Higher capacity RAMs
(C) Heaps
(D) Cache
34. The VLIW architecture follows ______ approach to achieve parallelism.
(A) SISD
(B) MISD
(C) MIMD
(D) SIMD
35. The flash memory modules designed to replace hard disk functions are
(A) RIMM
(B) FIMM
(C) DIMM
(D) Flash drives
36. During write-operation, if the required block is not in cache, a ______ occurs.
(A) Write delay
(B) Write latency
(C) Write hit
(D) Write miss
37. For zero-address instructions, operands are taken from
(A) Stack
(B) Accumulator
(C) Registers
(D) Cache
38. ______ memory is used to increase the speed of main memory.
(A) Secondary memory
(B) Flash drive
(C) Hard disk
(D) Virtual memory
39. In bus organization, all registers are called as
(A) Set registers
(B) Map registers
(C) Register block
(D) Register file
40. In a system with 32 registers, register ID field is
(A) 6-bits
(B) 8-bits
(C) 5-bits
(D) 10-bits
41. Each attribute of a relation has a set of permitted values called the ______ of that attribute.
(A) Relation
(B) Tuple
(C) Domain
(D) Schema
42. The term ______ is used to refer to a row.
(A) Instance
(B) Term
(C) Field
(D) Attribute
43. Records of a relation are also called as
(A) Keys
(B) Records
(C) Tables
(D) Files
44. Which of the following is an example of DBMS?
(A) MySQL
(B) All of the above
(C) IBM DB2
(D) Microsoft Access
45. Information about data is called
(A) DB data
(B) User data
(C) Meta data
(D) Google data
46. The ability to query, insert, delete and alter tuples is offered by
(A) DDL
(B) DML
(C) Pure
(D) None
47. ______ is a set of attributes taken collectively to uniquely identify a record.
(A) Primary key
(B) Foreign key
(C) Super key
(D) Candidate key
48. ______ command is used to remove a relation from SQL.
(A) delete
(B) drop table
(C) purge
(D) remove
49. Which of the following is NOT a DBMS utility?
(A) Backup
(B) Data loading
(C) File organization
(D) Process organization
50. Which normal form is adequate for a normal RDBMS design?
(A) 2NF
(B) 5NF
(C) 4NF
(D) 3NF
51. ______ model is not suitable for accommodating any change.
(A) Build & fix
(B) RAD
(C) Prototyping
(D) Waterfall
52. Which of the following is NOT a software process quality?
(A) Productivity
(B) Timeliness
(C) Portability
(D) Visibility
53. AGT Model is a set of
(A) Programs
(B) Software tools
(C) CASE tools
(D) None of the above
54. Quality Management is also known as
(A) SQA
(B) SOW
(C) SQM
(D) SQA and SQM
55. Which document contains user system-requirements?
(A) SRD
(B) BDD
(C) SDD
(D) SRS
56. ______ specification is also known as SRS document.
(A) White-box
(B) Black-box
(C) Grey-box
(D) None
57. There are ______ scenarios in elicitation activities.
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 4
58. Which one of the following is NOT an agile method?
(A) AGT
(B) XP
(C) AUP
(D) All of the above
59. Efficiency in a software product does NOT include
(A) Responsiveness
(B) Processing time
(C) Memory utilization
(D) Licensing
60. Constraints in UML can be represented by ______.
(A) [text]
(B) {text}
(C) constraint
(D) None of the above
61. The value of an automatic variable in C/C++ that is declared but not initialized is
(A) Unpredictable
(B) 1
(C) 0
(D) None of the above
62. ______ is NOT a type of loop statement.
(A) for
(B) while
(C) goto
(D) do-while
63. What does debugging in programming refer to?
(A) Writing code
(B) Testing code
(C) Fixing errors in code
(D) Documenting code
64. A conditional statement in programming
(A) Always executes
(B) Performs calculation
(C) Conditionally executes
(D) Repeatedly executes
65. ______ loop guarantees at least one execution even if condition is false.
(A) do-while
(B) while
(C) for
(D) All of the above
66. ______ is used as address-of operator in C/C++.
(A) &
(B) *
(C) @
(D) %
67. A programming language that can generate new data types is called
(A) Extensible
(B) Overloaded
(C) Derived
(D) Reprehensible
68. ______ statement is used to come out of any loop in C/C++.
(A) Continue
(B) Leave
(C) Break
(D) Quit
69. What is the index number of the last element of an array with 9 elements?
(A) 0
(B) Programmer-defined
(C) 9
(D) 8
70. What type of pointer is used to pass void pointer to void?
(A) 64-bit
(B) float
(C) void
(D) double
71. If a class serves as base class, then the members of base class are ______.
(A) Derived
(B) Polymorphic
(C) Inherited
(D) None
72. How many objects can be created from an abstract class?
(A) As many as needed
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Zero
73. Which feature of OOP indicates code reusability?
(A) Polymorphism
(B) Inheritance
(C) Encapsulation
(D) Abstraction
74. Adding new concept or class is known as
(A) Platform support
(B) Message passing
(C) Platform independence
(D) Data binding
75. Identify the feature achieved using encapsulation.
(A) Nested
(B) Abstract
(C) Anonymous
(D) Protected
76. The object cannot be ______.
(A) Passed by reference
(B) Passed as function
(C) Passed by value
(D) All of the above
77. How many classes can be inherited by a single class in Java?
(A) 1024
(B) 2
(C) More than 2
(D) 1
78. In multilevel inheritance one class inherits ______ class.
(A) All of the above
(B) More than one
(C) More than two
(D) Only one
79. Which among the following can restrict class members to get inherited?
(A) Private
(B) Protected
(C) Public
(D) A & B
80. There are ______ tuples in a finite state machine.
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) Unlimited
81. Language of finite automata is
(A) Type-3
(B) Type-1
(C) Type-2
(D) Type-0
82. In Moore machine, output is produced on change of
(A) Transitions
(B) None of the above
(C) All of the above
(D) Transition states
83. Mealy and Moore machines can be categorized as
(A) Inducers
(B) Linearly bounded automata
(C) Transducers
(D) Turing machines
84. Regular Expression R and the language it describes can be represented as ______.
(A) R, R(L)
(B) L(R), R(L)
(C) All of the above
(D) R, L(R)
85. Which of the following is a type of cybersecurity?
(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Four
(D) Three
86. Cloud Security, Network Security, and Application Security are collectively known as:
(A) All of the above
(B) Network Security
(C) Cloud Security
(D) Application Security
87. An attempt to harm, damage, or cause threat to a system or network is called:
(A) Cyber Attack
(B) Threats
(C) System Hijacking
(D) Digital Crime
88. Existence of weakness in a system or network is known as:
(A) Attack
(B) Exploit
(C) Vulnerability
(D) Threat
89. The term used for both white-hat and black-hat hackers is:
(A) Yellow Hat
(B) Grey Hat
(C) Red Hat
(D) Blue Hat
90. ______ can diminish the chance of data leakage.
(A) Chorography
(B) Steganography
(C) Cryptography
(D) Authentication
91. Which programming language is commonly used for server-side scripting in web development?
(A) HTML
(B) CSS
(C) PHP
(D) JavaScript
92. Which HTML tag is used to create an ordered list on a webpage?
" onclick="checkAnswer('q92','
- ')" /> (A) <b>
" onclick="checkAnswer('q92','
- ')" /> (B) <ul>
" onclick="checkAnswer('q92','
- ')" /> (C) <ol>
" onclick="checkAnswer('q92','
- ')" /> (D) <lo>
93. Which HTML tag is used to create a hyperlink?
" onclick="checkAnswer('q93','')" /> (A) <a>
" onclick="checkAnswer('q93','')" /> (B) <href>
" onclick="checkAnswer('q93','')" /> (C) <link>
" onclick="checkAnswer('q93','')" /> (D) <hyperlink>
94. Which CSS property controls the positioning of an element?
(A) set
(B) static
(C) place
(D) position
95. React.js is written in which of the following languages?
(A) C++
(B) JavaScript
(C) Java
(D) C
96. Which of the following is a branch of Artificial Intelligence?
(A) Machine Learning
(B) Cyber Forensics
(C) Full-Stack Development
(D) Network Design
97. Which of the following is a component of Artificial Intelligence?
(A) Learning
(B) Feeding
(C) Designing
(D) Puzzling
98. Which of the following is not an application of Artificial Intelligence?
(A) DBMS
(B) Chatbots
(C) LIDAR
(D) Face recognition system
99. How many informed search methods are there in Artificial Intelligence?
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 4
100. What is the total number of quantifications available in Artificial Intelligence?
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) 4