Q1: A law affirming that to continue after a certain level of performance has been reached will result in a decline in effectiveness. This law is known as ___________.
(A) Law of Diminishing returns
(B) Law of effectiveness
(C) Law of Saturation
(D) Law of Marketing returns
Answer: (A) Law of Diminishing returns
Q2: In _________________ a team is structured along a traditional hierarchy of authority.
(A) Closed paradigm
(B) Synchronous paradigm
(C) Random paradigm
(D) Open paradigm
Answer: (A) Closed paradigm
Q3: MMTC is the abbreviation of:
(A) Measured time to change
(B) Mean time to collaborate
(C) Mean time to change
(D) Measure time to cope
Answer: (C) Mean time to change
Q4: The rapid application development model is:
(A) Another name for component-based development
(B) A useful approach when a customer cannot define requirements clearly
(C) A high speed adaptation of the linear sequential model
(D) All of the given
Answer: (C) A high speed adaptation of the linear sequential model
Q5: While managing historical data, we should consider the following except:
(A) Data should be collected only from scientific projects and applications
(B) Data should be collected from many projects
(C) Data should be consistent
(D) Correct data should be taken
Answer: (A) Data should be collected only from scientific projects and applications (PG #72)
Q6: Quality costs may be divided into costs associated with:
(A) Prevention, appraisal, and failure
(B) People, process, and product
(C) Customers, developers, and maintenance
(D) All of the given
Answer: (A) Prevention, appraisal, and failure
Q7: When software is delivered to a client and a bug is reported, that bug is termed as:
(A) Error
(B) Defect
(C) Mistake
(D) Fault
Answer: (B) Defect
Q8: The _____________ model is used to overcome issues related to understanding and capturing of user requirements.
(A) Rapid Prototyping
(B) Waterfall
(C) Build and Fix
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A) Rapid Prototyping
Q9: The software plan is not a static document, it is frequently adjusted to make the project appear on track to meet all deadlines and quality targets.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: (A) True
Q10: Timeline chart is also known as the _____________ chart.
(A) Gantt
(B) PERT
(C) Freelance
(D) None of the given
Answer: (A) Gantt
Q11: The processes at ———– focus on continually improving process performance through both incremental and innovative technological changes/improvements.
(A) Level 5
(B) Level 1
(C) Level 4
(D) Level 3
Answer: (A) Level 5
Q12: In order to measure the design quality, if the frequency of ripple defects is too large, it means there is tight coupling and hence the:
(A) Design is maintainable
(B) Design is not maintainable
(C) Design has completed
(D) None of the given
Answer: (B) Design is not maintainable
Q13: The only reason for an estimate to be unreliable is lack of experience related to the application on the part of the estimator.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: (B) False
Q14: Usually the performance of the organization changes overnight.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: (B) False
Q15: The formal methods model of software development makes use of mathematical methods to:
(A) Define the specification for computer-based systems
(B) All of the given
(C) Develop defect-free computer-based systems
(D) Verify the correctness of computer-based systems
Answer: (B) All of the given
Q16: Which one of the following describes the data and control to be processed, function, performance, constraints, interfaces, and reliability?
(A) Product Quality
(B) Software scope estimation
(C) Resources requirements
(D) Time requirements
Answer: (B) Software scope estimation (PG #80)
Q17: The projects are classified into following categories except:
(A) New application development
(B) Reengineering projects
(C) Concept development projects
(D) Marketing Development Projects
Answer: (D) Marketing Development Projects (PG #96)
Q18: Quantitative process-improvement objectives for the organization are established, continually revised to reflect changing business objectives at ______________.
(A) Level 3
(B) Level 2
(C) Level 5
(D) Level 1
Answer: (C) Level 5
Q19: Reliability of a software is a:
(A) Functional requirement
(B) Non-functional requirement
(C) Design Requirement
(D) None of the given
Answer: (B) Non-functional requirement
Q20: Build and Fix model is a ___________ type of software development activity.
(A) Mathematical
(B) Perfect
(C) Haphazard
(D) Planned
Answer: (C) Haphazard
Q21: _____________ is not part of software development loop.
(A) Status Quo
(B) Problem definition
(C) Technical development
(D) Task set
Answer: (A) Status Quo (PG #10)
Q22: Level 1 of CMM is known as:
(A) Managed
(B) Defined
(C) Initial
(D) Repeatable
Answer: (C) Initial (PG #12)
Q23: Build and Fix model is a ___________ type of software development activity.
(A) Mathematical
(B) Perfect
(C) Haphazard
(D) Planned
Answer: (C) Haphazard
Q24: According to DeMarco, a good Project Manager should:
(A) Be very nervous
(B) Be very strict in official matters
(C) Not ignore any mistake from team members
(D) Have a big heart and ignore small mistakes
Answer: (D) Have a big heart and ignore small mistakes (PG #31)
Q25: The best project team organizational model to use when tackling extremely difficult problems is:
(A) Chief programmer team model
(B) Democratic decentralized model
(C) Controlled decentralized model
(D) Controlled centralized model
Answer: (B) Democratic decentralized model (PG #32)
Q26: Which factor is the least important when choosing the organizational structure for a software team?
(A) Degree of communication desired
(B) Predicted size of the resulting program
(C) Rigidity of the delivery date
(D) Size of the project budget
Answer: (D) Size of the project budget
Q27: Product and process decomposition occurs simultaneously as the project plan evolves.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: (A) True
Q28: Measuring the quality and performance of a software through any means is much better than just making a guess.
(A) True
(B) False
Answer: (A) True
Q29: The extent to which a program satisfies its specification and fulfills the customer’s mission objectives is said to be achieving the:
(A) Usability
(B) Efficiency
(C) Reliability
(D) Correctness
Answer: (D) Correctness
Q30: Integrity means that the software should:
(A) Help users to enjoy usability
(B) None of the given
(C) Withstand attack from a hacker
(D) Help hacker to hack the system
Answer: (C) Withstand attack from a hacker
Q31: Ambiguous requirements can be measured quantitatively.
(A) False
(B) True
Answer: (B) True
Q32: Which is used to determine the most viable option for cost estimation when information in the Decision Tree is complete?
(A) E = 3.2 (KLOC)^1.05
(B) Expected cost = (path probability)i × (estimated path cost)
(C) Expected cost = (path probability)i × (estimated path cost)
Answer: (B) Expected cost = (path probability)i × (estimated path cost)
Q33: After building the Decision Tree, the formula to find expected cost for an option is:
(A) Expected Cost = (path probability)i × (estimated path cost)
(B) Expected Cost = (path probability)i / (estimated path cost)
(C) Expected Cost = (path probability)i + (estimated path cost)
(D) Expected Cost = (path probability)i – (estimated path cost)
Answer: (A) Expected Cost = (path probability)i × (estimated path cost)
Q34: Degree of uncertainty that the product will meet its requirements and be fit for intended use is:
(A) Cost risks
(B) Schedule risks
(C) Performance risks
(D) None of the given choices
Answer: (C) Performance risks