1. : Under the Punjab Tenancy Act, 1887, a tenant having a right of occupancy may sublet the holding or any part of it for a term not exceeding—
(A) 3 years
(B) 7 years
(C) 10 years
(D) 5 years
2. : According to the Punjab Tenancy Act, 1887, when rent of a tenancy is expressed as a share of the land-revenue and the land-revenue is altered, the authority to determine the amount payable is the—
(A) Civil Judge
(B) Collector (or revenue officer empowered under the Land Revenue Act)
(C) High Court
(D) Tahsildar only
3. : Under the Act, any transfer of a right of occupancy made in contravention of the Act (without complying with required formalities) is—
(A) Absolutely void
(B) Voidable at the instance of the landlord
(C) Valid if registered later
(D) Valid if made to a near relative
4. : A tenant having a right of occupancy is entitled to compensation for improvements if—
(A) The landlord prevents the tenant from making improvements
(B) The tenant makes improvements and the tenancy is subsequently terminated under the Act’s provisions entitling compensation
(C) The tenant sells the holding during tenancy
(D) The tenant sublets the holding for more than 5 years
5. : Which authority is ordinarily empowered to make rules for regulating the procedure of Revenue Officers under the Punjab Tenancy Act, 1887?
(A) Federal Government
(B) Provincial Government
(C) High Court
(D) Board of Revenue only (without provincial sanction)
6. : The limitation period for a landlord’s suit for arrears of rent (under the Punjab Tenancy Act, 1887) is generally—
(A) Six years from due date
(B) Four years from due date
(C) One year from the day rent becomes due
(D) Two years from date of notice
7. : Under the Act, where a Collector dies or is disabled and an officer succeeds temporarily under general or special order of the ________, that officer shall be deemed to be Collector under the Act. Fill the blank.
(A) Federal Government
(B) Provincial Government
(C) Board of Revenue only
(D) High Court
8. : Section dealing with computation of periods limited for appeals and applications for review (i.e., rules for counting appeal periods) appears in which general part of the Act’s procedure-related provisions?
(A) Provisions on rights of occupancy
(B) Appeals and review procedural chapters
(C) Definitions section
(D) Section exclusively about rent fixation
9. : A tenant having right of occupancy may transfer that right by sale, gift or—
(A) Exchange
(B) Lease for life only
(C) Mortgage
(D) Surrender to landlord only
10. : Under the Punjab Tenancy Act, 1887, the proper forum for deciding most tenancy disputes (e.g., ejectment under the Act) is—
(A) Criminal Court
(B) Revenue Officer / Collector in first instance under the Act
(C) High Court as first forum
(D) Police Magistrate
11. : Under the Punjab Land Revenue Act, 1967, the highest authority in revenue hierarchy is the—
(A) Provincial Government
(B) Board of Revenue
(C) Commissioner
(D) Collector
12. : According to Section 15, the record-of-rights for each estate shall be prepared by the—
(A) Patwari
(B) Kanungo
(C) Collector or an officer appointed by him
(D) Assistant Commissioner
13. : Under the Act, an appeal against an order of an Assistant Collector of the 2nd Grade lies to—
(A) Board of Revenue
(B) Collector
(C) Assistant Commissioner
(D) Commissioner
14. : When a question arises regarding the limits of an estate or of a holding, the dispute shall be decided by the—
(A) Civil Court
(B) Revenue Officer
(C) Provincial Government
(D) Police Magistrate
15. : The power of revision under Section 84 of the Punjab Land Revenue Act, 1967 is exercised by—
(A) Assistant Collector of 2nd Grade
(B) Commissioner or Board of Revenue
(C) Collector only
(D) Tehsildar
16. : A Revenue Officer may summon any person to appear before him under Section—
(A) 17
(B) 25
(C) 35
(D) 39
17. : Under Section 54, partition of land can be refused by the Collector if—
(A) The land is government property
(B) The partition is impracticable or likely to cause serious loss or inconvenience
(C) The parties belong to different castes
(D) Any co-sharer requests delay
18. : Mutation proceedings under the Punjab Land Revenue Act are—
(A) Judicial proceedings
(B) Purely administrative in nature
(C) Criminal in nature
(D) Conducted by the Provincial Government directly
19. : A revenue officer making an order under this Act must record—
(A) The arguments of both lawyers only
(B) A brief statement of reasons for the decision
(C) The personal opinion of the Patwari
(D) None of the above
20. : Under Section 100, the rules made by the Provincial Government under the Act shall be—
(A) Laid before the Provincial Assembly
(B) Sent to the Board of Revenue for approval
(C) Published in the official Gazette
(D) Signed by the Chief Secretary only
21. : Under Section 54 of CrPC, a police officer may arrest a person without a warrant—
(A) Only with prior permission of a Magistrate
(B) If there is a reasonable suspicion of a cognizable offence
(C) When ordered by a Sessions Judge
(D) Only during daylight hours
22. : According to Section 61 CrPC, a person arrested without warrant shall not be detained by the police for more than—
(A) 24 hours
(B) 48 hours
(C) 72 hours
(D) 12 hours
23. : Under Section 103 of CrPC, before making a search, the officer must—
(A) Inform the nearest Magistrate
(B) Call upon two or more respectable inhabitants of the locality to witness the search
(C) Obtain a search warrant in all cases
(D) Inform the head of police department
24. : Which Section of the CrPC empowers a Magistrate to issue a search warrant?
(A) Section 96
(B) Section 103
(C) Section 165
(D) Section 154
25. : Under CrPC, a summary trial can be conducted for offences punishable with imprisonment not exceeding—
(A) 3 years
(B) 2 years
(C) 6 months
(D) 1 year
26. : Under which section can an accused be tried again for the same offence after an acquittal?
(A) Section 403
(B) Section 417
(C) Section 439
(D) None — such retrial is barred by law
27. : An appeal against an order of acquittal passed by a Magistrate may be filed under Section—
(A) 417
(B) 420
(C) 426
(D) 439
28. : The High Court’s power to transfer cases and appeals is provided under—
(A) Section 520
(B) Section 526
(C) Section 540
(D) Section 552
29. : Under CrPC, a Sessions Judge may pass a sentence of—
(A) Death only
(B) Imprisonment for life or any lesser punishment authorized by law
(C) Imprisonment not exceeding 7 years
(D) Fine only
30. : Under Section 417(2-A) CrPC, the right to appeal against acquittal is also granted to—
(A) The accused himself
(B) The complainant in a case instituted upon complaint
(C) The Sessions Judge
(D) The Provincial Government only
31. : According to Section 21 of the PPC, the term “Public Servant” includes—
(A) Only employees of Federal Government
(B) Every person in service of the State or local authority
(C) Private company employees
(D) Lawyers and doctors
32. : Under Section 34 PPC, when a criminal act is done by several persons in furtherance of a common intention, each of them—
(A) Is liable only for his own act
(B) Is liable as if the act were done by him alone
(C) Is not liable if not present
(D) Can be punished only with fine
33. : The essential element of criminal liability under the PPC is—
(A) Actus reus alone
(B) Mens rea alone
(C) Both mens rea and actus reus
(D) Only intention without act
34. : Section 107 of PPC defines—
(A) Abetment
(B) Conspiracy
(C) Criminal intimidation
(D) Public nuisance
35. : The offence of abetment is complete when—
(A) The principal offence is successfully committed
(B) The abettor instigates or aids another person, regardless of result
(C) The abettor escapes before commission of crime
(D) There is mere knowledge of offence
36. : According to Section 108, a person abets an offence who—
(A) Instigates any person to do that offence
(B) Engages in conspiracy to commit an offence
(C) Intentionally aids the doing of that offence
(D) All of the above
37. : The offence of “Public nuisance” is defined under Section—
(A) 268
(B) 269
(C) 271
(D) 273
38. : Under the PPC, an act is not an offence if done by a child under the age of—
(A) 10 years
(B) 7 years
(C) 9 years
(D) 12 years
39. : When an act is done by mistake of fact believing oneself justified by law, it is—
(A) A punishable offence
(B) Protected under Section 79 PPC
(C) Considered negligence
(D) An attempt to commit offence
40. : According to Section 120-B of PPC, the punishment for criminal conspiracy is—
(A) Always imprisonment for life
(B) The same as for the principal offence if punishable with death, life, or rigorous imprisonment
(C) Fine only
(D) Determined by the court’s discretion without any limit
41. : What is the primary objective of the Punjab Enforcement and Regulation Act, 2024?
(A) To regulate only industrial emissions
(B) To establish uniform standards for enforcement of provincial laws and administrative regulations
(C) To replace all local government laws
(D) To supervise criminal courts
42. : Under the Punjab Enforcement and Regulation Act, 2024, which authority is primarily responsible for coordinating enforcement actions across departments?
(A) Provincial Cabinet
(B) Chief Secretary
(C) Director General Enforcement and Regulation
(D) Provincial Police Officer
43. : According to the Act, “Enforcement Officer” is empowered to—
(A) Conduct searches, inspections, and issue compliance notices
(B) Make laws and regulations
(C) Appoint the Chief Secretary
(D) Only monitor through reports
44. : Which section of the Punjab Enforcement and Regulation Act, 2024 provides penalties for obstruction of enforcement?
(A) Section 8
(B) Section 10
(C) Section 12
(D) Section 15
45. : Under the Act, before taking coercive measures, the Enforcement Officer must—
(A) Obtain written authorization from the Director General
(B) Inform the District Enforcement Committee
(C) Issue a written notice allowing time for compliance
(D) Get prior approval from the High Court
46. : The District Enforcement and Regulation Committee under this Act is chaired by:
(A) Deputy Commissioner
(B) Senior Superintendent of Police
(C) District & Sessions Judge
(D) Additional Chief Secretary
47. : The Punjab Enforcement and Regulation Authority (PERA) can issue:
(A) Administrative directions and enforcement codes
(B) Judicial verdicts
(C) Legislative amendments
(D) Only financial reports
48. : Which of the following does NOT fall under the jurisdiction of the Punjab Enforcement and Regulation Authority?
(A) Environmental enforcement
(B) Traffic control on national highways
(C) Building code regulation
(D) Industrial compliance monitoring
49. : Appeals against decisions of Enforcement Officers shall lie to:
(A) The High Court directly
(B) The Director General Enforcement and Regulation
(C) The Provincial Ombudsman
(D) The Chief Minister
50. : The Punjab Enforcement and Regulation Act, 2024 seeks to promote:
(A) Parallel enforcement structures
(B) Centralization of all judicial powers
(C) Uniform, transparent, and accountable enforcement across Punjab
(D) Private enforcement through contractors
51. : The main objective of the Punjab Price Control of Essential Commodities Act, 2024 is to—
(A) Allow free market pricing for all commodities
(B) Maintain stability in prices of essential goods and prevent profiteering
(C) Replace the Competition Commission of Pakistan
(D) Nationalize all trading entities
52. : Under the Act, which authority is empowered to fix, regulate, and revise prices of essential commodities?
(A) Provincial Cabinet
(B) Controller General of Prices
(C) Deputy Commissioner
(D) Provincial Food Department only
53. : “Essential Commodity” under the Act includes which of the following?
(A) Industrial machinery
(B) Petroleum, food grains, and medicines
(C) Automobiles
(D) Construction equipment
54. : The Act empowers the government to issue a Price Control Order—
(A) Through the Governor’s Ordinance only
(B) By notification in the official Gazette
(C) Only after approval by the Federal Government
(D) Through local traders’ associations
55. : Under Section 8, any person found hoarding or overcharging essential commodities may face—
(A) Fine or imprisonment up to 3 years, or both
(B) Only a warning
(C) Confiscation without penalty
(D) A written apology before the Deputy Commissioner
56. : The Price Control Magistrate is authorized to—
(A) Fix new prices for traders
(B) Conduct inspections, raids, and impose penalties
(C) Enforce land revenue laws
(D) Appoint market committees
57. : Under the Act, which entity maintains daily price monitoring reports at the district level?
(A) Provincial Bureau of Statistics
(B) District Price Control Committee
(C) Chamber of Commerce
(D) Civil Defence Office
58. : Any person aggrieved by a decision of the Price Control Magistrate may appeal to—
(A) The High Court
(B) The Deputy Commissioner
(C) The Sessions Judge
(D) The Chief Secretary
59. : “Hoarding” as defined in the Act refers to—
(A) Storage of commodities beyond prescribed limits for raising prices
(B) Legal stocking of goods for future sale
(C) Importing goods from other provinces
(D) Price reduction below market rate
60. : The Punjab Price Control of Essential Commodities Act, 2024 aims to ensure—
(A) Market freedom without regulation
(B) Equitable distribution and price stability of basic goods
(C) Complete privatization of trade markets
(D) Centralization of all business licenses
61. : The primary objective of the Punjab Prevention of Hoarding Act, 2020 is—
(A) To promote free trade across provinces
(B) To prohibit and control hoarding of essential commodities
(C) To regulate international imports
(D) To fix prices of luxury goods
62. : Under Section 2(c), “hoarding” means—
(A) Keeping goods for personal use only
(B) Storing any essential commodity beyond the prescribed limit for creating artificial shortage
(C) Importing goods without license
(D) Selling goods below the market price
63. : The Act extends to—
(A) Only Lahore Division
(B) The entire Province of Punjab
(C) Urban areas only
(D) Rural districts notified by the Government
64. : Under the Act, who is authorized to conduct search and seizure operations against hoarders?
(A) Price Control Magistrate only
(B) Deputy Commissioner or any officer authorized by the Government
(C) Police Inspector of any rank
(D) District Food Controller only
65. : As per Section 5, any person found guilty of hoarding shall be punished with—
(A) Fine up to fifty thousand rupees only
(B) Imprisonment up to three years and fine up to 1 million rupees or both
(C) Simple imprisonment of one month
(D) Warning and confiscation only
66. : Under Section 6, seized goods shall—
(A) Be destroyed immediately
(B) Be auctioned or sold as directed by the Deputy Commissioner
(C) Be returned to the offender
(D) Be handed over to the nearest police station
67. : The burden of proof regarding lawful possession of seized commodities lies on—
(A) The complainant
(B) The Government
(C) The person from whom the goods were recovered
(D) The Price Control Committee
68. : Any appeal against an order made under this Act shall lie before—
(A) The High Court
(B) The Commissioner of the Division
(C) The Deputy Commissioner
(D) The Secretary Industries, Commerce, Investment & Skills Development Department
69. : Under Section 8, an offence under the Punjab Prevention of Hoarding Act, 2020 is—
(A) Bailable and compoundable
(B) Non-bailable and cognizable
(C) Only compoundable
(D) Petty and civil in nature
70. : The Punjab Prevention of Hoarding Act, 2020 was enacted to—
(A) Facilitate stock traders in bulk purchasing
(B) Ensure availability of essential goods and protect consumers from artificial shortages
(C) Encourage private warehouses
(D) Regulate export of industrial goods
71. : The main objective of the Colonization of Government Lands (Punjab) Act, 1912 is—
(A) To distribute private lands among farmers
(B) To regulate the management, disposal, and occupation of Government-owned lands
(C) To control urban real estate projects
(D) To grant land to industrialists only
72. : Under the Act, the term “Colony” refers to—
(A) An industrial area
(B) Any area declared by the Government as colony for the purpose of settlement or cultivation
(C) A military cantonment
(D) Urban housing societies
73. : According to Section 4, the overall control and superintendence of all colonies vests in—
(A) The Commissioner
(B) The Board of Revenue
(C) The Provincial Government
(D) The Deputy Commissioner
74. : Under Section 5, the Collector of a colony is empowered to—
(A) Frame rules for sale of Government land
(B) Lease, sell or allot land as per Government directions
(C) Conduct elections for land committees
(D) Issue licenses for trade
75. : A person occupying Government land in a colony without lawful authority is known as—
(A) Licensee
(B) Trespasser
(C) Tenant
(D) Allottee
76. : Under Section 10, if any person refuses to vacate Government land after notice, the Collector may—
(A) File a civil suit only
(B) Evict such person using necessary force and confiscate property
(C) Seek assistance of High Court
(D) Issue arrest warrant directly
77. : Section 12 empowers the Government to make rules for—
(A) All matters connected with or incidental to the administration of colonies
(B) Regulation of private tenancy
(C) Election of local committees
(D) Industrial licensing
78. : Under the Act, disputes regarding allotment, cancellation, or possession of land are decided by—
(A) The Civil Court
(B) The Collector or any officer empowered by the Government
(C) The Provincial Ombudsman
(D) The Local Government
79. : An appeal from an order of the Collector lies to—
(A) The Commissioner of the Division
(B) The High Court
(C) The Provincial Government or an officer authorized by it
(D) The Board of Revenue directly
80. : Under the Act, rules and orders made by the Government shall be—
(A) Secret and confidential
(B) Published in the official Gazette for public information
(C) Applicable only after court approval
(D) Issued verbally to local officers
81. : Under Rule 1 of the PERA (Operations & Procedures) Rules, 2025, these rules may be cited as—
(A) Punjab Enforcement Rules, 2024
(B) Punjab Enforcement and Regulatory Authority (Operations and Procedures) Rules, 2025
(C) Punjab Regulatory Operations Rules, 2025
(D) Punjab Enforcement Procedures Rules, 2025
82. : The PERA Rules, 2025 declare that they shall—
(A) Come into force after 30 days of notification
(B) Come into force on a date specified later
(C) Come into force at once
(D) Come into force after approval from the Board
83. : The Board under these Rules must meet at least once every—
(A) Month
(B) Two months
(C) Three months
(D) Six months
84. : Notice for a Board meeting under the Rules must ordinarily be given—
(A) One day in advance
(B) Two days in advance
(C) Three days in advance
(D) Five days in advance
85. : The Rules allow the Chairperson to reduce the notice period for a special meeting of the Board in case of—
(A) Budgetary urgency only
(B) Administrative convenience only
(C) Urgency of the subject matter
(D) When the Board approves it in advance
86. : The “Hearing Officer” under the Rules has territorial jurisdiction over—
(A) Entire province of Punjab
(B) All Enforcement Stations
(C) Matters arising within his specific Enforcement Station’s jurisdiction
(D) Only cases involving prices
87. : The Rules require that a complaint from the public must specify—
(A) Name of the complainant only
(B) Location and nature of the violation, illegal act, public injury or annoyance
(C) Suggested penalty
(D) Witness list only
88. : Under the Rules, for deliberating enforcement actions, which evidentiary media are included in the definition of “documentary and digital evidence”?
(A) Only hard-copy documents
(B) Video, audio, emails, social media communications, etc.
(C) Only photographs
(D) Only text messages
89. : The Rules empower the Board or Chairperson to require any committee member or employee to attend meetings; but such a person—
(A) Shall have voting rights
(B) Shall pay attendance fee
(C) Shall not have the right to cast a vote
(D) Shall present a report only
90. : Under the Rules, unless the subject or context otherwise requires, a word not defined in the Rules shall—
(A) Be ignored
(B) Have the meaning assigned to it in the Act
(C) Be interpreted by the Board
(D) Be defined by courts later
91. : The maxim “Expressio unius est exclusio alterius” means:
(A) The expression of one is the exclusion of another
(B) The expression of one includes others
(C) Silence implies consent
(D) Ignorance of law is no excuse
92. : The rule “Noscitur a sociis” is used for:
(A) Determining the intention of Parliament through context
(B) Restricting the literal meaning of words
(C) Expanding the scope of penal statutes
(D) Ignoring marginal notes in law
93. : The maxim “Ut res magis valeat quam pereat” is applied to ensure:
(A) A statute is declared void if ambiguous
(B) Interpretation favors validity rather than nullity
(C) Literal meaning always prevails
(D) Executive power overrides statutory text
94. : The principle “Generalia specialibus non derogant” means:
(A) General words do not repeal special provisions
(B) Special provisions cannot override the Constitution
(C) General laws always prevail over special laws
(D) Both general and special laws are equal in force
95. : The literal rule of interpretation emphasizes:
(A) Discovering legislative intent beyond the words
(B) Giving words their ordinary and natural meaning
(C) Avoiding grammatical constructions
(D) Relying solely on executive interpretation
96. : The maxim “Contemporanea expositio est optima et fortissima in lege” means:
(A) Later interpretation is stronger in law
(B) Contemporary exposition is the best and strongest in law
(C) Administrative interpretation has no value
(D) Judicial review overrides interpretation
97. : The mischief rule originated from which famous case?
(A) Heydon’s Case (1584)
(B) Donoghue v. Stevenson
(C) Entick v. Carrington
(D) Rylands v. Fletcher
98. : The maxim “Lex non cogit ad impossibilia” means:
(A) Law commands what is possible, not impossible
(B) Law requires absolute compliance
(C) Law never changes
(D) Law is superior to morality
99. : The doctrine of ejusdem generis applies when:
(A) Specific words are followed by general words
(B) General words are followed by specific words
(C) There is no ambiguity in the statute
(D) Penal laws are being interpreted
100. : The maxim “Audi alteram partem” is a rule of:
(A) Natural justice — hear the other side
(B) Equity — treat equally
(C) Criminal procedure — presume innocence
(D) Civil law — estoppel