Q1. Software is defined as:
(A) Physical components of computer
(B) Set of programs and documentation
(C) Only hardware devices
(D) Input devices
Answer: (B) Set of programs and documentation
Q2. Software Engineering is:
(A) Writing code only
(B) Systematic approach to software development
(C) Selling software
(D) Repairing computers
Answer: (B) Systematic approach to software development
Q3. The term Software Crisis refers to:
(A) Lack of hardware
(B) High cost and low quality software
(C) Virus attack
(D) Internet failure
Answer: (B) High cost and low quality software
Q4. Which is NOT a characteristic of software?
(A) Developed
(B) Engineered
(C) Manufactured
(D) Maintained
Answer: (C) Manufactured
Q5. Software does not:
(A) Wear out
(B) Fail
(C) Need updates
(D) Require maintenance
Answer: (A) Wear out
Q6. Generic software is:
(A) Custom made
(B) Developed for specific client
(C) Developed for general public
(D) Illegal software
Answer: (C) Developed for general public
Q7. Customized software is developed for:
(A) Public use
(B) Specific customer
(C) Students only
(D) Testing only
Answer: (B) Specific customer
Q8. The main aim of software engineering is:
(A) Increase hardware speed
(B) Produce quality software
(C) Reduce electricity
(D) Design circuits
Answer: (B) Produce quality software
Q9. SDLC stands for:
(A) Software Development Life Cycle
(B) System Design Level Code
(C) Software Data Link Control
(D) System Development Local Code
Answer: (A) Software Development Life Cycle
Q10. First phase of SDLC is:
(A) Design
(B) Coding
(C) Requirement Analysis
(D) Testing
Answer: (C) Requirement Analysis
Q11. Feasibility study is done to:
(A) Test code
(B) Check project viability
(C) Design UI
(D) Install software
Answer: (B) Check project viability
Q12. Functional requirements describe:
(A) System behavior
(B) Hardware details
(C) Budget
(D) Office location
Answer: (A) System behavior
Q13. Non-functional requirements describe:
(A) Features
(B) Quality attributes
(C) Code syntax
(D) Database name
Answer: (B) Quality attributes
Q14. SRS stands for:
(A) Software Requirement Specification
(B) System Run Setup
(C) Software Runtime Service
(D) System Requirement Setup
Answer: (A) Software Requirement Specification
Q15. Verification means:
(A) Are we building the product right?
(B) Are we building the right product?
(C) Writing code
(D) Selling software
Answer: (A) Are we building the product right?
Q16. Validation means:
(A) Testing code
(B) Are we building the right product?
(C) Designing UI
(D) Installing system
Answer: (B) Are we building the right product?
Q17. Waterfall model is:
(A) Iterative model
(B) Linear sequential model
(C) Agile model
(D) Spiral model
Answer: (B) Linear sequential model
Q18. Agile model focuses on:
(A) Documentation only
(B) Customer collaboration
(C) Hardware
(D) Long cycles
Answer: (B) Customer collaboration
Q19. Prototyping model helps in:
(A) Reducing hardware
(B) Understanding requirements
(C) Deleting data
(D) Installing OS
Answer: (B) Understanding requirements
Q20. Spiral model focuses on:
(A) Risk analysis
(B) Coding only
(C) Testing only
(D) Hardware repair
Answer: (A) Risk analysis
Q21. Cohesion refers to:
(A) Dependency between modules
(B) Strength of module elements
(C) Testing type
(D) Coding error
Answer: (B) Strength of module elements
Q22. Coupling refers to:
(A) Module independence
(B) Module dependency
(C) Testing speed
(D) Hardware failure
Answer: (B) Module dependency
Q23. Black box testing is also called:
(A) Structural testing
(B) Functional testing
(C) White testing
(D) Code testing
Answer: (B) Functional testing
Q24. White box testing is also called:
(A) Structural testing
(B) Functional testing
(C) Acceptance testing
(D) Beta testing
Answer: (A) Structural testing
Q25. Unit testing is done by:
(A) User
(B) Developer
(C) Client
(D) Manager
Answer: (B) Developer
Q26. Integration testing checks:
(A) Single module
(B) Combined modules
(C) Hardware
(D) Documentation
Answer: (B) Combined modules
Q27. System testing is done on:
(A) Single function
(B) Complete system
(C) Database only
(D) UI only
Answer: (B) Complete system
Q28. Maintenance phase occurs:
(A) Before coding
(B) After deployment
(C) Before testing
(D) During design
Answer: (B) After deployment
Q29. Corrective maintenance fixes:
(A) New features
(B) Errors
(C) UI design
(D) Database schema
Answer: (B) Errors
Q30. Adaptive maintenance is done to:
(A) Fix bugs
(B) Adapt to environment changes
(C) Add comments
(D) Delete files
Answer: (B) Adapt to environment changes
Q31. Perfective maintenance improves:
(A) Performance
(B) Errors
(C) Hardware
(D) Network
Answer: (A) Performance
Q32. Preventive maintenance prevents:
(A) Future problems
(B) Testing
(C) Coding
(D) Installation
Answer: (A) Future problems
Q33. COCOMO is used for:
(A) Testing
(B) Cost estimation
(C) Coding
(D) Maintenance
Answer: (B) Cost estimation
Q34. Gantt chart is used for:
(A) Testing
(B) Scheduling
(C) Coding
(D) Debugging
Answer: (B) Scheduling
Q35. Risk management identifies:
(A) Hardware
(B) Project risks
(C) Code lines
(D) Passwords
Answer: (B) Project risks
Q36. Version control helps in:
(A) Deleting code
(B) Tracking changes
(C) Installing OS
(D) Testing hardware
Answer: (B) Tracking changes
Q37. Git is a:
(A) Programming language
(B) Version control system
(C) Database
(D) Browser
Answer: (B) Version control system
Q38. Software quality means:
(A) Cheap software
(B) Meeting requirements
(C) Colorful UI
(D) Large size
Answer: (B) Meeting requirements
Q39. ISO is related to:
(A) Coding
(B) Quality standards
(C) Hardware
(D) Network
Answer: (B) Quality standards
Q40. Software metrics measure:
(A) Software attributes
(B) Hardware speed
(C) Electricity
(D) Keyboard type
Answer: (A) Software attributes
Q41. LOC stands for:
(A) Line of Code
(B) List of Code
(C) Level of Code
(D) Logic of Code
Answer: (A) Line of Code
Q42. UML stands for:
(A) Unified Modeling Language
(B) Universal Machine Language
(C) Unique Modeling Logic
(D) User Model Language
Answer: (A) Unified Modeling Language
Q43. Use case diagram shows:
(A) Data structure
(B) User interaction
(C) Code
(D) Database
Answer: (B) User interaction
Q44. Class diagram represents:
(A) Actors
(B) Classes and relationships
(C) Testing
(D) Hardware
Answer: (B) Classes and relationships
Q45. Sequence diagram shows:
(A) Data flow
(B) Interaction sequence
(C) Class attributes
(D) Hardware layout
Answer: (B) Interaction sequence
Q46. Software reliability means:
(A) Fast speed
(B) Failure-free operation
(C) Low cost
(D) Large size
Answer: (B) Failure-free operation
Q47. Software portability means:
(A) Easy to move to other platforms
(B) Easy to delete
(C) Easy to sell
(D) Easy to copy
Answer: (A) Easy to move to other platforms
Q48. Software maintainability means:
(A) Easy to modify
(B) Easy to install
(C) Easy to crash
(D) Easy to hack
Answer: (A) Easy to modify
Q49. Reusability means:
(A) Delete code
(B) Reuse components
(C) Rewrite code
(D) Remove modules
Answer: (B) Reuse components
Q50. The main output of requirement phase is:
(A) Code
(B) SRS document
(C) UI
(D) Test cases
Answer: (B) SRS documentQ51. Software process is:
(A) A program
(B) Set of activities for developing software
(C) Hardware tool
(D) Testing device
Answer: (B) Set of activities for developing software
Q52. Process framework includes:
(A) Coding only
(B) Framework activities
(C) Hardware setup
(D) Selling software
Answer: (B) Framework activities
Q53. Communication is a phase of:
(A) SDLC
(B) Hardware cycle
(C) Networking
(D) Manufacturing
Answer: (A) SDLC
Q54. Planning phase mainly focuses on:
(A) Testing
(B) Scheduling and estimation
(C) Coding
(D) Maintenance
Answer: (B) Scheduling and estimation
Q55. Modeling phase includes:
(A) Design activities
(B) Selling product
(C) Installing software
(D) Hardware repair
Answer: (A) Design activities
Q56. Deployment phase includes:
(A) Coding
(B) Delivering software to customer
(C) Designing
(D) Requirement gathering
Answer: (B) Delivering software to customer
Q57. Incremental model delivers software in:
(A) Single step
(B) Small increments
(C) Random order
(D) Reverse order
Answer: (B) Small increments
Q58. Evolutionary models are useful when:
(A) Requirements are unclear
(B) Requirements are fixed
(C) No customer
(D) No budget
Answer: (A) Requirements are unclear
Q59. RAD stands for:
(A) Rapid Application Development
(B) Random Access Data
(C) Real Application Design
(D) Rapid Access Development
Answer: (A) Rapid Application Development
Q60. The main objective of feasibility study is to check:
(A) Coding errors
(B) Project practicality
(C) UI design
(D) Network cables
Answer: (B) Project practicality
Q61. Technical feasibility checks:
(A) Budget
(B) Technology availability
(C) Office space
(D) Employee salary
Answer: (B) Technology availability
Q62. Economic feasibility checks:
(A) Profit and cost
(B) Code quality
(C) Hardware brand
(D) Programming language
Answer: (A) Profit and cost
Q63. Operational feasibility checks:
(A) User acceptance
(B) Code length
(C) CPU speed
(D) Disk space
Answer: (A) User acceptance
Q64. Risk is defined as:
(A) Certain problem
(B) Possible future problem
(C) Completed task
(D) Finished project
Answer: (B) Possible future problem
Q65. Risk mitigation means:
(A) Ignoring risk
(B) Reducing impact of risk
(C) Creating risk
(D) Deleting project
Answer: (B) Reducing impact of risk
Q66. Stakeholder is:
(A) Only developer
(B) Anyone interested in project
(C) Only tester
(D) Only manager
Answer: (B) Anyone interested in project
Q67. Software review is done to:
(A) Find defects
(B) Increase bugs
(C) Delay project
(D) Remove users
Answer: (A) Find defects
Q68. Walkthrough is a type of:
(A) Testing
(B) Review
(C) Coding
(D) Deployment
Answer: (B) Review
Q69. Audit is conducted to ensure:
(A) Quality compliance
(B) Code length
(C) UI color
(D) Hardware brand
Answer: (A) Quality compliance
Q70. Baseline in configuration management means:
(A) Final approved version
(B) First error
(C) Random file
(D) Testing phase
Answer: (A) Final approved version
Q71. Change request is used to:
(A) Delete project
(B) Modify approved product
(C) Stop coding
(D) Increase cost
Answer: (B) Modify approved product
Q72. Build management deals with:
(A) Combining code modules
(B) Deleting files
(C) Testing users
(D) Network setup
Answer: (A) Combining code modules
Q73. Software reuse reduces:
(A) Quality
(B) Development time
(C) Documentation
(D) Testing
Answer: (B) Development time
Q74. CASE tools support:
(A) Hardware repair
(B) Software development activities
(C) Selling products
(D) Office management
Answer: (B) Software development activities
Q75. Refactoring improves:
(A) Code structure
(B) Hardware speed
(C) Internet speed
(D) Electricity
Answer: (A) Code structure
Q76. Debugging is:
(A) Finding and fixing errors
(B) Writing new software
(C) Designing UI
(D) Selling software
Answer: (A) Finding and fixing errors
Q77. Beta testing is performed by:
(A) Developers
(B) Real users
(C) Managers
(D) Designers
Answer: (B) Real users
Q78. Alpha testing is conducted at:
(A) Customer site
(B) Developer site
(C) Market
(D) School
Answer: (B) Developer site
Q79. Acceptance testing ensures:
(A) Code efficiency
(B) Customer approval
(C) Hardware support
(D) Network security
Answer: (B) Customer approval
Q80. Regression testing checks:
(A) New errors after changes
(B) Hardware faults
(C) Network speed
(D) User training
Answer: (A) New errors after changes
Q81. Smoke testing is used to:
(A) Check basic functionality
(B) Burn hardware
(C) Test network
(D) Delete data
Answer: (A) Check basic functionality
Q82. Software productivity is measured by:
(A) Time and output
(B) Color of UI
(C) Brand of PC
(D) Screen size
Answer: (A) Time and output
Q83. Function point measures:
(A) Hardware capacity
(B) Software size
(C) CPU speed
(D) Internet speed
Answer: (B) Software size
Q84. Cyclomatic complexity measures:
(A) Code complexity
(B) UI color
(C) Disk space
(D) Network cables
Answer: (A) Code complexity
Q85. Documentation helps in:
(A) Maintenance
(B) Increasing bugs
(C) Slowing system
(D) Deleting modules
Answer: (A) Maintenance
Q86. A milestone marks:
(A) Important project event
(B) Coding error
(C) Hardware purchase
(D) Salary day
Answer: (A) Important project event
Q87. Software evolution refers to:
(A) Software deletion
(B) Software changes over time
(C) Hardware repair
(D) Virus attack
Answer: (B) Software changes over time
Q88. Legacy system is:
(A) New system
(B) Old existing system
(C) Testing tool
(D) Programming language
Answer: (B) Old existing system
Q89. Reverse engineering means:
(A) Forward coding
(B) Analyzing existing system
(C) Deleting code
(D) Installing software
Answer: (B) Analyzing existing system
Q90. Forward engineering means:
(A) Developing system from requirements
(B) Deleting system
(C) Breaking hardware
(D) Hacking software
Answer: (A) Developing system from requirements
Q91. Software ethics relates to:
(A) Moral principles in development
(B) Coding speed
(C) Hardware brand
(D) Internet provider
Answer: (A) Moral principles in development
Q92. Intellectual property protects:
(A) Ideas and software
(B) Hardware wires
(C) Office furniture
(D) Electricity
Answer: (A) Ideas and software
Q93. Open-source software allows:
(A) Source code access
(B) Hidden code
(C) No usage
(D) Paid only
Answer: (A) Source code access
Q94. Proprietary software is:
(A) Free
(B) Owned and licensed
(C) Public domain
(D) Open source
Answer: (B) Owned and licensed
Q95. Scalability means:
(A) Ability to handle growth
(B) Deleting data
(C) Reducing memory
(D) Slowing system
Answer: (A) Ability to handle growth
Q96. Availability means:
(A) System readiness for use
(B) Deleting files
(C) Coding errors
(D) Hardware crash
Answer: (A) System readiness for use
Q97. Efficiency refers to:
(A) Resource usage
(B) UI design
(C) Logo size
(D) Color theme
Answer: (A) Resource usage
Q98. Reliability is measured by:
(A) Failure rate
(B) Screen size
(C) Keyboard type
(D) Mouse brand
Answer: (A) Failure rate
Q99. Portability refers to:
(A) Running on different platforms
(B) Deleting system
(C) Testing hardware
(D) Coding speed
Answer: (A) Running on different platforms
Q100. The ultimate goal of software engineering is:
(A) Increase bugs
(B) Deliver high quality software on time and within budget
(C) Sell hardware
(D) Reduce users
Answer: (B) Deliver high quality software on time and within budgetQ51. Software process is:
(A) A program
(B) Set of activities for developing software
(C) Hardware tool
(D) Testing device
Answer: (B) Set of activities for developing software